1920 AD Homeland for the Jews in Palestine mandated by League of Nations
1948 AD I ISRAELI INDEPENDENCE in Israel and Judea
1948 AD Jordan Attacked and drove out the Jews and OCCUPIED Israel and Judea
1967 AD ISRAEL CONTROLS ALL OF ISRAEL and JUDEA after 2,700 years of foreign occupation. BUT THEY GAVE CONTROL OF THE TEMPLE MOUNT TO MUSLIMS.
As you can see above the last sovereign nations in the area called "Palestine" were Judea and Israel. Since the "Israel and Judea were taken over, beginning in 733 BC, the area has been "occupied,"
When the Jews return and set up a nation in the same area, how can it be called an occupation?
Please look carefully at the occupiers. Please tell me when "Palestinians" became the natives of the area?
Who were the "Palestinians" in 1948?
Everyone living in the area (Jews, Christians and Muslims) were called "Palestinians" in 1948.
However, the Arabs identified themselves with a larger Arab "nation" that existed in much of Africa and
the Middle East, and at that time they preferred to be called "Arabs."
Many Arabs living in "Palestine" were born elsewhere,
For example, the census of 1931 in the Jerusalem region included Muslims born in Albania, Algeria,
Australia, Central America, Central Asiatic Territories, Cyprus, Egypt, Far Eastern Asia, France, Greece, Hejez-Nejd, Indian Continent, Iraq, Morocco, Persia (Iran), South America, Spain, Syria, Transjordan, Tripoli, Tunis, Turkey, UK, USA, USSR, Yemen, Other Arabian Territories, Other African Territories. (see From Time Immemorial, by Joan Peters, p. 227)
It is not surprising, then, that the United Nation's definition of "refugees" was changed from people forced to leave "permanent" or "habitual" homes, to persons who had been in "Palestine" for as little as two years. (see From Time Immemorial. by Joan Peters, p. 4)
Only in 1964, when the PLO was formed did Arabs choose to be called "Palestinians." In this way they
made It seem that they were native to the area and that all of Palestine belonged to them. (Apparently
they thought westerners were too uninformed and shallow to notice the switch. Were they right?)_"
Since there was a continuous Jewish presence in Judea and Samaria for some 3,500 years, when and how did this become Arab land?
And how can Jews returning to well-known Jewish towns such as Shilo and Hebron be called "settlers"? How can Jews living anywhere in this land that was their sovereign nation until it was occupied by foreign powers for 2,700 years be called "settlers"?
The words "occupation" and "settlers" do not line up with the facts. When the wrong words are used, justice becomes impossible.
By the way, 80% of "Palestine" is already under Arab rule, while Arabs are only 55% of the population.
Pundits and government officials think nothing of demanding that Jewish people uproot themselves and
move out of areas they have inhabited for 3,500 years, turning their homes and businesses over to Arabs who already have more than their fair share of "Palestine:'
Yet were we to suggest that Arabs who don't want to live under Jewish rule, or who refuse to live peacefully in autonomous areas, uproot themselves and move to the 80% of "Palestine" that is already under Arab rule, we would be seen as wild-eyed radicals. Why is this? Please explain this to me?
Terrorists are "terrorists" everywhere except Israel. And it's OK to uproot Jews, but not Arabs. How can we account for this?
Another Interesting Fact'.
There are 1,155,109,000 (1999 total) Muslims in the world.
Muslims control 1O,O17,377 sq. mi. of land or .00867 sq. mi. per person There are 14,313,000 (1999 total) Jews in the world.
If Jews controlled .00867 sq. mi. per person,
Jews would control 124,126 sq. mi. of land
Jews NOW control 10,410 sq. mi. of land (including the west bank and Gaza)
How much more land do you think Israel should give to Muslims?
Author of 'The Mountains of Israel?"